meg19 Posted October 15, 2004 Share Posted October 15, 2004 I was married to forty years and looking back I'm certain I was and am asexual. Although we had two children I was never comfortable with sexual activity and as time went by we engaged in sex less and less often but our love increased until his death. I have now met a man who describes himself as sensuous. Surprisingly, although I did not seek it, I responded to his advances and enjoy a sexual relationship with him. However I know I could not react in this way with any other person so I'm definitely not a late bloomer! I am certain I am reacting to him in particular and if it ends I will never feel the same with any other man. Are there degrees of asexuality? Can there be sexual attraction with one particular person but not in general terms? Link to post Share on other sites
bard of aven Posted October 15, 2004 Share Posted October 15, 2004 At least one other member (orderinchaos--correct me if I'm wrong, oic!) has reported something like this--having had some sexual experience, going through a long period of not expeeriencing sexual attraction to others, then experiencing attraction to specific rare individuals, and nonfor anyone else. How you classify yourself is up to you. Whether you decide the asexual label fits you or not, you are certainly welcome here. boa Link to post Share on other sites
Cate Perfect Posted October 16, 2004 Share Posted October 16, 2004 Boa said everything I was going to. Damn you, boa! :D I feel that if you were with someone for 40 years and did not have an urge for sex then that sounds pretty asexual to me. But I have heard of people who've been able to be with a person that didn't fit their typical orientation--a gay man who fell for a woman, an asexual who suddenly met a person they fancied that way. Ah, the variations within humanity, eh? No matter what label you decide fits best you're certainly welcome to the boards. Cate Link to post Share on other sites
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