Barbara! Posted April 15, 2019 Share Posted April 15, 2019 If I have only ever romantically loved one person who happened to be female (while I am male), yet their gender plays no role in my attraction, am I/could I be pan-romantic, or something else perhaps? I'm not repulsed by the idea of romantically being with a person of any one gender identity, but I feel as if I can't say much about my own romantic orientation as I've only been in love with one person. I couldn't get much out of my internet research, so I wanted to get some perspectives and opinions from people, some of whom may have been in a similar situation. Thanks in advance for your help, guys! 😅 Link to post Share on other sites
NickyTannock Posted April 15, 2019 Share Posted April 15, 2019 I've moved this thread from 'Questions about Asexuality' to 'Romantic and Aromantic Orientations'. Michael Tannock, Open Mic moderator and Questions about Asexuality Co-moderator. Link to post Share on other sites
Galactic Turtle Posted April 15, 2019 Share Posted April 15, 2019 Being in love with someone is like... the last stop on the romantic attraction train. Developing mild interest and then a crush are usually the first steps so I'd really go by that. Link to post Share on other sites
Barbara! Posted April 15, 2019 Author Share Posted April 15, 2019 2 minutes ago, Galactic Turtle said: Being in love with someone is like... the last stop on the romantic attraction train. Developing mild interest and then a crush are usually the first steps so I'd really go by that. Thanks for your feedback. I'm content to be at the last stop, I suppose! It's a great place to be! Link to post Share on other sites
Gracey72 Posted April 15, 2019 Share Posted April 15, 2019 I second Galactic Turtle on this. Link to post Share on other sites
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