jemaz Posted August 13, 2006 Share Posted August 13, 2006 This is my first posting as I am new here, and have only recently acknowledged my osexuality. I have posted my bio elsewhere for anyone interested. I am 63 years old. We know that Paul was against homosexuality from his writing, and I asume he was not married as there is no mention of a wife. In Paul's letter to Timothy, he replies to a question about the opposete sex like this (paraphrased) "I would prefer that you be like me (asexual?)..but it is better that you marry, than think about sex every time you see a woman" Best I could do on short notice, thanks. Jim. :roll: Link to post Share on other sites
Dargon Posted August 14, 2006 Share Posted August 14, 2006 We've had a few topics on this, here's the only one I could find on my quick search: http://www.asexuality.org/discussion/viewt...highlight=bible I'll comment when I have time later, I'm a bit rushed right now. Link to post Share on other sites
Hallucigenia Posted August 14, 2006 Share Posted August 14, 2006 I brought up this passage when Slatterly came out to me - it was the first thing I could think of, I guess. It sounds pretty asexual to me, but there are some other explanations that could work, too. Guess we'll just have to wait until we can ask him about it ourselves. ;) Link to post Share on other sites
thylacine Posted August 15, 2006 Share Posted August 15, 2006 I don't think we can ever know unless someone invents a time machine so they can go back and ask him personally. Link to post Share on other sites
jamie Posted August 15, 2006 Share Posted August 15, 2006 I agree with others, there's no knowing that.. That would be too easy :) Link to post Share on other sites
Parth Posted August 15, 2006 Share Posted August 15, 2006 Well, it could have been referring to celibacy, maybe? Link to post Share on other sites
cijay Posted August 15, 2006 Share Posted August 15, 2006 "Maybe" is about the only word anyone can use when making interpretations to Biblical passages/cast of characters. Link to post Share on other sites
jamie Posted August 15, 2006 Share Posted August 15, 2006 hehe, true :) Link to post Share on other sites
Gray Posted August 16, 2006 Share Posted August 16, 2006 Two points from Jemaz's original letter: We know that Paul was against homosexuality from his writing There has been much speculation about what Paul described as his "thorn in the flesh". As he never uses the word "flesh" elsewhere to describe physical attributes, the thorn is more likely to be sexual/behavioral. Some have even suggested he found gay tendencies in himself, and hated himself for it, and that was his "thorn". But maybe his "thorn" was being asexual? After all, it is a bit of a nuisance being asexual, isn't it? I asume he was not married as there is no mention of a wife. In an article I read about the Da Vinci Code, a theologian said that as Jesus' marital status isn't mentioned in the Bible, we can assume he was married. If he wasn't, in his day and age, it would have been remarked upon ... Link to post Share on other sites
str8fuknpimpin Posted August 19, 2006 Share Posted August 19, 2006 i'm guessing Paul was a homosexer. it's ok Paul *looks up to heaven* he probably didn't want to admit it. it's cool Paul, i have a best bud that's homosexerist as well Link to post Share on other sites
str8fuknpimpin Posted August 19, 2006 Share Posted August 19, 2006 oh yeah. and welcome jemaz :) Link to post Share on other sites
jemaz Posted August 19, 2006 Author Share Posted August 19, 2006 "as Jesus's marital states is not mentioned in the bible, we can assume he was married??" How did your theologion come to that ridiculous conclesion? I saw " The Da Vinci Code", and enjoyed it. 90% fiction of course, but well done just the same. JEMAZ 8) Link to post Share on other sites
cijay Posted August 19, 2006 Share Posted August 19, 2006 "as Jesus's marital states is not mentioned in the bible, we can assume he was married??"How did your theologion come to that ridiculous conclesion? What is it that makes the 'conclesion' ridiculous? It didn't say we MUST assume Jesus was married - only that we CAN. The same way people CAN assume that he was single and celibate. Nobody says you MUST assume that, only that you can. I'm single. You CAN assume that I've never been married, am separated, widowed or divorced. I saw " The Da Vinci Code", and enjoyed it. 90% fiction of course, but well done just the same. As may well be the Bible. No, I take it back it's not well done. DaVinci code never claims to be 'right', only offers another point of view. The men who wrote the Bible claimed it was 'right'. Link to post Share on other sites
Hallucigenia Posted August 19, 2006 Share Posted August 19, 2006 DaVinci code never claims to be 'right', only offers another point of view. Actually, doesn't the Da Vinci Code have a little note at the beginning saying that certain parts of the book are completely factual? :? Link to post Share on other sites
jemaz Posted August 20, 2006 Author Share Posted August 20, 2006 The Bible, particularly the new testament, is the most carefully written and studied collection of historical events, written by people who lived at that time and in that place, Jews, who's main contribution to humanity was the written history of themselves. Originally written in Greek, the language of scholarship at the time. Our whole culture today is based on it. :shock: Jemaz Link to post Share on other sites
cijay Posted August 21, 2006 Share Posted August 21, 2006 Actually, doesn't the Da Vinci Code have a little note at the beginning saying that certain parts of the book are completely factual? :? I don't know, for all I know some of it is. Which parts of the bible are? Link to post Share on other sites
Ziffler Posted August 24, 2006 Share Posted August 24, 2006 cijay wrote,Which parts of the bible are? Actually! All of it. From the first word, "In" of Genesis to the last word "Amen." of Revelation. The fun part is that Revelation Chapter 4, Verse 1 is about to take place very soon. So if I fail to log on to Aven in the future, then you will know that the "Come Up Hither" has occured and I am no longer here. Link to post Share on other sites
vikingo Posted August 24, 2006 Share Posted August 24, 2006 Welcome jemaz Link to post Share on other sites
MintyZebra Posted September 1, 2006 Share Posted September 1, 2006 Paul is generally thought to be an "A" , and his thorn in the flesh is often called, by historians, a vision problem he had in one or both eyes. Link to post Share on other sites
jemaz Posted September 1, 2006 Author Share Posted September 1, 2006 Yes, I have heard that he had a problem with his eyes, and that he had others write much of his corespondance to old friends in various plages that he had been before his final stay in Rome. Thanks,....JEMAZ 8) Link to post Share on other sites
DianeL Posted September 29, 2006 Share Posted September 29, 2006 Paul uses the word gift here in the verse mentioned, I believe it was stated it was in 1 cor 3. Could someone tell me if the word gift in this verse is the same word gift used in the verses within Eph 2: 8-9? I'm asking because the work gift her mean it is free that it isn't something earned or gained by working for it. If the word gift are the same in both verse than I would think the verse mentioned mean Paul was asexual since it would of been a gift he had no problem staying away since he wouldn't have to work towards getting to that point. I'm really want to know this so I hope someone knows. If no one knows off hand I will try to see if I can find out, I do have some books that might be able to tell me something. Diane Link to post Share on other sites
Hallucigenia Posted September 30, 2006 Share Posted September 30, 2006 Paul uses the word gift here in the verse mentioned, I believe it was stated it was in 1 cor 3. Could someone tell me if the word gift in this verse is the same word gift used in the verses within Eph 2: 8-9? I'm asking because the work gift her mean it is free that it isn't something earned or gained by working for it. http://blueletterbible.org For all your Biblical-Greek-vocabulary-ish needs! :D The word "gift" used in Ephesians 2: 8-9 was doron (I don't have a Greek font here at the moment), meaing a gift or the offering of gifts, especially (oddly enough, given the context in Ephesians) a gift offered to God or the temple. I don't see it in 1 Corinthians. The word "gift" in 1 Corinthians 7:7 is actually charisma, a word denoting the gift of divine grace or another such attribute such as faith or virtue, an undeserved favour, or extraordinary powers given by the Holy Spirit. http://www.blueletterbible.org/tmp_dir/wor...75359-7063.html Link to post Share on other sites
DianeL Posted September 30, 2006 Share Posted September 30, 2006 Hi Hall..., Thanks for looking this up for me. I see these both have very different meanings. I may add to this tomorrow, time to get some sleep. Diane Link to post Share on other sites
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