danaflavin Posted November 15, 2014 Share Posted November 15, 2014 Can you tell me the difference between grey sexuality (that's a play on words, asexuality with grey areas) and desire dysfunction? Link to post Share on other sites
Gizamaluke Posted November 15, 2014 Share Posted November 15, 2014 Nope. Link to post Share on other sites
Jubbles Posted November 15, 2014 Share Posted November 15, 2014 I don't think any of the asexuality spectrum can be explained because of desire dysfunction... Link to post Share on other sites
Ficulnean Posted November 22, 2014 Share Posted November 22, 2014 Yeah, my personal and biased view: in hyposexual desire disorder, a person has sadly internalized the values of wanting sex, and thus feels bad and from that functionally ruins their lifes because their asexual. They have let a the medicalization trend in mental disorders discredit their identity. Interestingly enough, certain mental disorders exist in some cultures and not in others. Riddle me this; what does that mean for how seriously psychology takes cultures, instead of just medicalozing everything to the individual. As a modern discipline psychology has only existed since 1879. (Wundts lab, and look has badly that disciple developed into the highly wrong introspection line of though.) Non-biased view: if it suddenly happens that someone was sexual at some point, the falls into the classification of hyposexual desire disorder, we might want to see if something is wrong. Unless they still don't care, which would be rather odd. Link to post Share on other sites
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